Big Blue Huddle

Quote from: LennG on Today at 11:44:59 AMLet's try another rule question


Line drive hits off the pitching rubber, goes up in the air, and is caught by the 1st baseman in foul territory.

What's the call?

Hmm. I've always thought the pitching rubber is part of the ground. So in that case my guess would be it's a foul ball. The fact that the fielder caught the rebound is irrelevant since the ball had already touched the ground.

Quote from: LennG on Today at 11:44:59 AMAnd another one that happened to us earlier this season

Batter bunts the ball up the 1st base line. He drops his bat and it is in fair territory. The bunt rolls and hits the dropped bat and goes into foul territory.

What do you have on this play?

That's one I don't remember ever seeing before. I know I've seen foul balls hit twice, but only while the batter is still in the box. In that case I think it's still just a foul ball.

But when the ball hits the bat outside the batter's box seems to me like it should be either an immediate dead ball, or possibly some sort of interference. Because what's to prevent the batter from tossing the bat at a ball in play to push it away from a fielder trying to make a play to throw him out. So my guess is it's interference, batter is out.
Probably wrong though. 

Damn, Rich. I hope you're ok and have no serious injuries. As you know sometimes issues can pop up after the "excitement" fades away. Hoping for no hidden concerns, and that you are able to come back from this quickly and without pain.

Wow!!

Quote from: LennG on May 18, 2024, 07:58:43 PMIf the pitcher lost contact with the rubber, I would think a base umpire would call that as it would be almost impossible for the plate man to see that.

I don't have YES Network, but I did find this post-game interview with Boone on YouTube where right at the end of the clip he says the umpire, Laz Diaz, initially says Cortes stepped off the mound. But the clip prematurely ends at that point, so I don't know what else Boone says.

https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=NPoo2k0UCtI&t=2s

Quote from: LennG on May 18, 2024, 07:48:15 PMThere is a scenario where the umpire seeing that the runner intentionally interfered with a fielder CAN call a double play, with the runner out and the batter also out. It is rare as you would have to anticipate that the ground ball would have been a DP, and the runner did what he could to stop it. It is a legitimate call though.

Len, this reminds me of another MLB situation - runner on 1st and the batter hits the ball down the line and a fan touches the ball while it's in play, (and ultimately is kicked out of the stadium), and the hit is ruled a ground rule double. I've heard announcers in the past say that it's within the umpire's the discretion to allow the runner on first to score if, in the umpire's opinion, he would have scored had the fan not interfered. Yet I have never seen this happen, even when it's obvious the runner would have scored. I've only seen the runner on first get two bases and must stay at third.
Can you comment on this?

I watched the game last night, and saw that play, Ric. I never did hear the actual official explanation, though I didn't look around for it. My assumption last night after seeing several replays, not shown in this short clip, is that during his pitching motion his left foot briefly lost contact with the pitching rubber, a question O'Neill also asked.

I know the fielder has the right to  make the play, the base runner must avoid contacting him. In this case the base runner is automatically called out. I'm pretty sure the batter gets first base though, I don't think there can be two outs called on this play as you described it. So, my answer is A.

I'll take a stab at it. First of all, I think the runner has to go back to 1st base. I don't know what, if anything, happens to the batter. So I think it's either B or D. But I'll take a guess, the batter is called out for interference, runner back to 1st.

Thanks Len. That actually makes sense to me.

Quote from: LennG on May 16, 2024, 12:23:34 PMSince both of us, the umpires had never really seen a play like that, we got together and used our best judgment and knowledge to make the call.

Since the rulebook says that if any pitched ball strikes the batter, it is a dead ball, regardless if it hits the ground first, that is what we used to make the ruling. The batter swinging at it makes no difference.
(If a better, say, squares to bunt and he offers at the pitch and in doing so, the pitch hits him, a strike is called as he did offer at the ball, and being hit has no relevance except making the ball dead)

Since it is now a dead ball, the runner had to return to 1st base, as that was his position at the time of the pitch.

Len, can you explain the difference in this scenario vs. your first example (post #1 in this thread)? In both instances there was a runner on 1st base "at the time of the pitch." Also in both instances the runner on base was going with the pitch. Yet in the first instance the runner was awarded 2nd base as a result of the dead ball, but in this second instance the runner had to go back to 1st base as a result of the dead ball. I'm a bit confused.

Good one Len. I would find it hard to place the baserunner back at 1st base since he was already going on he pitch, before it hit the batter. But if I were to hazard a guess as to what the actual rule states, I would say the runner must go back to 1st. But I won't be surprised which ever way this one goes.

**Edit: Dead ball -  One from the mound, two from the field?

Quote from: GIANTS1 on May 14, 2024, 09:08:22 AMi am going to say illegal because they actually made a play while time was out.

Yes. It would help if I'd read it closer. 

I would agree then. Not a legal play.

Quote from: GIANTS1 on May 14, 2024, 09:08:22 AMi am going to say illegal because they actually made a play while time was out.

Is time automatically out every time a pitcher throws over to first and the runner gets back safely? I don't know about that. I always thought time is never out unless a player requests time, or the ball goes into a dead zone, or obviously between innings.

I think it's legal as long as the pitcher doesn't step on the rubber.  Pitcher can't step on the rubber without the ball.

*edit - or is it the pitcher can't step on the mound without the ball. Crap, now I'm not sure.
I'll say he can't step on the rubber without the ball. Legal play. (No way am I certain though).