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Baseball rules

Started by LennG, May 09, 2024, 08:51:15 PM

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Sem

Sorry, I've been busy.

In the first scenario (first and third, one out), I say the run doesn't score based on you earlier comment, "A force play, if it is the 3rd out, ends the inning, no matter what else has happened." Had you not said that I probably would've assumed the run scores.

In the second scenario, the first runner is called out on appeal, inning over. Neither runner scores.

Third scenario in which the runner bunts and slides past first. I say the runner is safe at first. You can go past first and as long as you don't make an attempt to head toward second base you cannot be tagged out. So if the runner slides towards in a straight line towards the right field foul pole it's the same as running past first in a straight line. If his slide takes him in the direction of second (I have trouble seeing how that would even happen), I think he's still safe and cannot be tagged out because there was no attempt to head toward second.

Last scenario, against my better judgement I'll say the force out at first, via the appeal, take precedence over the  first runner scoring.
"A force play, if it is the 3rd out, ends the inning, no matter what else has happened."

LennG

Quote from: LennG on July 29, 2024, 01:28:54 PMSo now we know about a Force Play and all the implications, so I'll give you a 'quirk' in that, that has caused several pretty decent arguments.

Runners on 1st and 3rd with 1 out. Batter hits a fly to right which is caught. Runner from 3rd tags up and scores. The runner who was on 1st thought the ball had dropped and took off. The defense sees this and throws to 1st before the runner gets back and is called out. According to the rule book, this is considered a force play. (Why, I have no idea, maybe because he doesn't have to be tagged).
Because this is considered a force play, does that run score?

This is tricky and as I said it is considered a force play but it is also what we refer to as a timing play. Steve you are right in that as I have said countless times a force play ends an inning no run can score EXCEPT here. As long as the runner crossed the plate before the man is out at first the run scores. I really can't explain why this is considered a force play but the rulebook says it is but it is a different kind and the only reason why I can think of is the runner doesn't have to be tagged. It is the exception to the rule.
One run scores.
I HATE TO INCLUDE THE WORD NASTY< BUT THAT IS PART OF BEING A WINNING FOOTBALL TEAM.

Charlie Weiss

LennG

Quote from: LennG on July 29, 2024, 03:05:45 PMSince we are talking force plays and appeals, let me run this by you. A VERY unusual situation and you can probably watch baseball for many years and not see it, BUT, what if????

Runners on 2nd and 3rd, 2 out. Batter singles, both runners come in to score, BUT (and you knew there has to be a BUT) the first runner missed stepping on home plate and the 2nd runner did. Both men now go into the dugout but the catcher knowing that one runner missed home, appeals to the umpire on the 1st runner and he is called out on appeal. Does the runner who did touch home and scored, does his run count? (this was NOT a force play)



Both of you got this. Since the 1st runner didn't touch home and called out on appeal he did not touch a base he was forced to touch.
First runner is out and no runs score
I HATE TO INCLUDE THE WORD NASTY< BUT THAT IS PART OF BEING A WINNING FOOTBALL TEAM.

Charlie Weiss

LennG

Quote from: LennG on July 29, 2024, 03:12:39 PMSince I have a few more, here is another

Doesn't matter the outs or if anyone is on. Batter bunts for a base hit, The ball is fielded and thrown to 1st but the batter slides into 1st base and beats the throw. BUT the momentum of his slide carries him over and beyond 1st base. The fielder seeing this now tags him. Is he out?



Both of you got this correct also. You are allowed to overrun ,1st base as long as no turn is made to go to 2nd. As long as you return right to the base there is no penalty and cannot be called out.
There is an old galaxy that if you overrun 1st and on returning, you turn towards 2nd you can be called out. Nonsense. As long as no attempt was made to advance and that is very obvious if you are the umpire, you cannot be tagged and called out. Old wives tale.
I HATE TO INCLUDE THE WORD NASTY< BUT THAT IS PART OF BEING A WINNING FOOTBALL TEAM.

Charlie Weiss

LennG

Quote from: LennG on July 29, 2024, 03:22:02 PMOne more in this same line. By now you should get this one.

Sometimes, in baseball, the umpire can recognize a 4th out.

Runners again, on 2nd and 3rd with 2 out. Let's use Mays again, who gets a hit and the runner from 2nd is thrown out at the plate for the 3rd out, but wait, Mays, seeing the throw go to the plate tried to take 2nd but missed 1st base and is called out on appeal. Does the runner, who scored from 3rd, count?

Both you guys are learning very well as you again both got this one right. A lot of things to consider but it all comes down to the batter missed 1st base and on appeal he is called out. 3 out and no runs score.
I HATE TO INCLUDE THE WORD NASTY< BUT THAT IS PART OF BEING A WINNING FOOTBALL TEAM.

Charlie Weiss

LennG


Each year we are given a sort of quiz with about 25 questions on thing that MIGHT come up more in a HS game than a MLB game but the rules are still the same and we must know them. Without going into too much detail as I have on other questions here are a few of them, from our t est

1)Bases loaded, 3-2 on batter. he fouls the next pitch off. the umpire throws a new ball into the pitcher. He is off the rubber, rubbing the ball up, when the man on 3rd is off the base. he throws over and the runner is tagged out. Is he out????


2)Man on 1st. He steals 2nd on the next pitch. SS tells the runner it was a foul ball, and the runner goes back to 1st, where he is tagged out. Is this legal??

3) Runners on 1st and 3rd. Right-handed pitcher standing on the rubber in the stretch position. Wants to make the runner on 3rd take a step back, and feints a throw to 3rd. Is this legal??


4)Runners on 1st and 2nd, one out. The batter hits an infield fly. The runner on 2nd is on his base when SS runs into him and the ball falls uncaught.
Is this interference??
Who is out?
Do runners have to advance??


5) Runner on 2nd. Ground ball to SS. He fakes a runner to go BACK to 2nd, then throws to 1st, but his throw is wild and goes into the stands. The runner had already crossed 1st base before the ball went into dead area. Does the runner from 2nd score?? where does the batter end up???








I HATE TO INCLUDE THE WORD NASTY< BUT THAT IS PART OF BEING A WINNING FOOTBALL TEAM.

Charlie Weiss

Sem

#126
I'll give these a try...

Quote from: LennG on August 02, 2024, 04:02:50 PMEach year we are given a sort of quiz with about 25 questions on thing that MIGHT come up more in a HS game than a MLB game but the rules are still the same and we must know them. Without going into too much detail as I have on other questions here are a few of them, from our t est

1)Bases loaded, 3-2 on batter. he fouls the next pitch off. the umpire throws a new ball into the pitcher. He is off the rubber, rubbing the ball up, when the man on 3rd is off the base. he throws over and the runner is tagged out. Is he out????

I say he is not out. I think after a dead ball stoppage the pitcher has to contact the rubber before play can begin again. But what would the call be? A balk? Called "ball one?" Or in current MLB, a time clock violation by the pitcher? Or is there no call at all?



Quote from: LennG on August 02, 2024, 04:02:50 PM2)Man on 1st. He steals 2nd on the next pitch. SS tells the runner it was a foul ball, and the runner goes back to 1st, where he is tagged out. Is this legal??

I don't think such deception is legal. If the runner goes back on his own then yes, he can be tagged out. But the runner should always look to the umpire to tell him "foul ball, go back to 1st," and not take the word of the fielder.


Quote from: LennG on August 02, 2024, 04:02:50 PM3) Runners on 1st and 3rd. Right-handed pitcher standing on the rubber in the stretch position. Wants to make the runner on 3rd take a step back, and feints a throw to 3rd. Is this legal??

I think recently they have outlawed the fake throw to third. In this case it's a balk. Also, that means no more fake to third throw to first, which I never saw it work anyway.


Quote from: LennG on August 02, 2024, 04:02:50 PM4)Runners on 1st and 2nd, one out. The batter hits an infield fly. The runner on 2nd is on his base when SS runs into him and the ball falls uncaught.
Is this interference??
Who is out?
Do runners have to advance??

Runners do not have to advance when an infield fly rule is called. I think the batter is automatically out due to the infield fly rule. Also, it is the responsibility for the baserunner to avoid contacting a fielder attempting to make a play on the ball, unless he is standing on a base. So in this case I'm going to say both runners stay put and are safe. Only the batter is out.


Quote from: LennG on August 02, 2024, 04:02:50 PM5) Runner on 2nd. Ground ball to SS. He fakes a runner to go BACK to 2nd, then throws to 1st, but his throw is wild and goes into the stands. The runner had already crossed 1st base before the ball went into dead area. Does the runner from 2nd score?? where does the batter end up???
Assuming the batter runs straight through first base, he is awarded second base on the dead ball. If the base runner is on second at the time of the dead ball he can only go to third. (I hate these dead ball questions!!).   :hmm:










GIANTS1

1 i know runner has to be allowed to re tag base, if he wandered off after that id say he is out. should not leave base til pitcher on rubber.
2im gonna say hes out. dumb move on his part.

3 agree with Sem

4 agree with sem

5 thrown ball by fielder im gonna say 2 bases each.

LennG

#128
1---Steve had it correct. Since it was a dead ball and a new ball in the game the pitcher has to go back on the rubber to put the ball in play. In this case the runner can't be called out. It is nothing, no call because it is still a dead ball.

2---runner would be out. As Steve again said runner should check with the umpire before doing anything. Just stupid base running and possibly smart by the defense.

3--- It is a balk. Pitcher while on the rubber cannot feint a throw to any base. He has to step toward the base first. Any feint while on the rubber is a balk. If he is off the rubber then it's ok.

4---Both are correct. s long as the runner is standing on his base he is legal and cannot be called out. Batter is out on the infield fly as it makes no difference if the ball is caught. Runners can advance at their own risk. In this case the fielder makes contact with the runner who is on his base is unfortunate but there is no penalty.

5---The basic rule in all baseball is the position of the runner at the time of the pitch. The key to this is the runner crossed first before the ball went dead. That fact means nothing. If he had crossed first before the ball was thrown then it is a whole different story. In this case the batter gets 2nd and the runner on 2nd scores.
Rule 2 bases from the field and one from the mound. So at the time of the pitch the batter was at home so he gets 2nd. The runner was already on 2nd so he gets 2  bases so he scores.
If the batter had crossed 1st before the throw as made he would get 3rd as be already had 1st.
Good job guys.
I HATE TO INCLUDE THE WORD NASTY< BUT THAT IS PART OF BEING A WINNING FOOTBALL TEAM.

Charlie Weiss

LennG


Let me throw a few more questions out there from our test

1--Manager, knowing a batter is going to bunt, takes his center fielder and positions him right on 2nd base. Is this legal???


2---Bases loaded, 2 out, batter walks. Runner from 2nd goes to 3rd and rounds the bag. Catcher sees this and throws to 3rd and runner is tagged out.
Is he out??
If he is tagged out before runner from 3rd crosses home plate, does the run count??


3---With a runner on 1st, a pitch gets away from the catcher. Runner does not go, catcher reaches over with his mask to bring the ball back to him. Is this legal??



4---man on 3rd. Batter while swinging at a pitch, nicks the catcher's glove. the ball still goes to the outfield and the man on 3rd tags up and scores. What is the ruling?? Does the umpire even have to make a call???


5---Man on 1st. Pop up to 1st baseman. runner seeing this, tries to go back to 1st and runs into the 1st baseman, who still manages to make the catch. Runner got back before he could be tagged out.
 What is the call if any?????
I HATE TO INCLUDE THE WORD NASTY< BUT THAT IS PART OF BEING A WINNING FOOTBALL TEAM.

Charlie Weiss

Sem

I'll have to come back later to this thread to read the questions and answers, so don't wait for me. I'm up early to drive to the airport, I'll be traveling/out of town for the next week with limited online access. 

LennG

I give it a few more days and see if anyone else wants in.
I HATE TO INCLUDE THE WORD NASTY< BUT THAT IS PART OF BEING A WINNING FOOTBALL TEAM.

Charlie Weiss

GIANTS1

1 im gonna say yes

2 yes run counts

3 no 3 bases

4 i think interference is dead ball. batter to first no run.

5runner out for interference double play

my guesses

LennG

OK, I think I have learned something myself going over the last set of questions

1-- I know MLB had changed where you can only position infielders at certain places, like no 3 guys on one side of the field, but as far as I know, this is legal. As long as all defensive players except the catcher are in fair territory, you can play an outfielder on 2nd base.

2--The rule book says that once a batter walks, he is entitled to 1st base, and any runners, forced to advance can do so without being put out. So, the batter walks, and every runner is forced to advance so the man from 3r d is entitled to home and score even though the runner is put out at 3rd, but it was after he was already awarded that base. This is NOT a timing play.


3--Here is where I may have learned something. I always thought it WAs 3 bases, touching the ball with detached equipment, but I went to the rule book to verify it and came away a bit puzzled. The run book says 3 bases on a fair ball being touched with detached equipment, and 2 bases on a thrown ball, This situation is neither, so I looked further and it does say

Each runner, other than the batter, may without liability
to be put out, advance one base when

"A fielder deliberately touches a pitched ball with
his cap, mask or any part of his uniform detached
from its proper place on his person. The ball is in
play, and the award is made from the position of
the runner at the time the ball was touched."

 Reading this, I take it to mean the runner is entitled to ONE base from where he was at the time the ball was touched.

Learn something new every day.

4--Here is the trick to this answer. It is catcher's interference. If the batter gets a hit, or advances to 1st base then the interference is nullified, If he doesn't, the manager of the offensive team can take the result of the play, or have the batter get 1st base and all other runners stay where they are except if they are forced to advance. In this situation, the manager has the right to take the play as it is, with the batter out but the run scoring, or he can have the batter awarded 1st base but the runner will have to go back to 3rd. The umpire does NOT have to ask the manager what he wants to do unless the manager approaches the umpire and asks what his choices are.


5---Correct--DP. Once the runner makes contact with a fielder trying to field a ball he is out for interference. Makes no difference if the fielder e nds up making the play. And since the ball is caught, Double Play.
I HATE TO INCLUDE THE WORD NASTY< BUT THAT IS PART OF BEING A WINNING FOOTBALL TEAM.

Charlie Weiss