Any Baseball rules questions answered here

[LennG]

I had an unusual play the other day, so I thought I would relate this to you. It is more likely to happen in a HS game (which it did) then in a MLB game, but it could.

2 out, runner on 3rd, with a 1-1 count on the batter. Next pitch is in the dirt, batter swings and misses. He thought it was strike 3 so he starts to run to 1st base. Catcher also not knowing, sees the guy running so he throws to first thinking he is making the putout. In the meantime, the runner from 3rd, on the throw to 1st, scores. After all the confusion, I tell the batter it was only strike 2 and he is still up. Now the manager of the defense comes out and wants an interference call on the batter for running to 1st with only 2 strikes, even if it wasn't intentional.

Had to think about this one for a moment, as the batter should not have run on strike 2, which did cause the catcher to throw. BUT, and you knew there would be a but, the catcher has to be aware of the situation also and should not have thrown to 1st. That is exactly what I told the manager. All players on the field have their own responsibility to know the situation. The catcher should have known it was only strike 2 and never made that throw.

It is the same as with a runner on 1st stealing second on any strike 3 swinging out on the batter.  Even if the catcher drops the ball, 1st base is considered occupied AT THE TIME OF THE PITCH, even though the runner was stealing. Many times the batter will try and run thinking 1st base is now unoccupied as the other runner was stealing. Even in this case the catcher has to know the rule and not throw down to 1st instead of trying to get the runner stealing.

Anyway, I did check with our rules interpreter and he agreed I made the right call.

[jimv]

When it comes to umpiring, YOU THE MAN!!!!!

[Sem]

Good one Lenn.