Baseball rules

[LennG]

This is something that I have never seen, but I would also call the runner safe as he wasn't tagged until he was already touching the base. If he tried to shake his head to make the helmet fall off, then that is intentional and could be called out for interference. Here, it is clear that the helmet came off accidentally. SAFE, as I would call it.

In a way, say a bat was on the field, left by the batter and a ball hits it, the bat is now part of the playing field, as long as the batter didn't do it intentionally. If you watch baseball, you can see players, especially the catcher, try to clear a bat left in front of the plate, if he thinks there might be a play there. Again, as long as it is unintentional, the equipment is part of the playing field.

I messed up a call this season (yes, I do get one wrong every once in a while). I'm not sure if I have mentioned this already. The guy was diving back to second on a pickoff. His hand was on the bag before he was tagged, but his hand was on the fielder's foot, which was on the bag. I always thought that since the foot was on the bag it would be considered part of the bag, but I was wrong. I called him safe using that logic but later found out he should have been called out. I would still argue, that he was there before the tag and the guy's foot was just in the way of him officially touching the bag and his foot was ON the bag, not in front of it, but the rule says he must touch the bag, so I was wrong. Silly rule, but it is what it is and I learned something this year.

[Jolly Blue Giant]

This is something that I have never seen, but I would also call the runner safe as he wasn't tagged until he was already touching the base. If he tried to shake his head to make the helmet fall off, then that is intentional and could be called out for interference. Here, it is clear that the helmet came off accidentally. SAFE, as I would call it.

In a way, say a bat was on the field, left by the batter and a ball hits it, the bat is now part of the playing field, as long as the batter didn't do it intentionally. If you watch baseball, you can see players, especially the catcher, try to clear a bat left in front of the plate, if he thinks there might be a play there. Again, as long as it is unintentional, the equipment is part of the playing field.

I messed up a call this season (yes, I do get one wrong every once in a while). I'm not sure if I have mentioned this already. The guy was diving back to second on a pickoff. His hand was on the bag before he was tagged, but his hand was on the fielder's foot, which was on the bag. I always thought that since the foot was on the bag it would be considered part of the bag, but I was wrong. I called him safe using that logic but later found out he should have been called out. I would still argue, that he was there before the tag and the guy's foot was just in the way of him officially touching the bag and his foot was ON the bag, not in front of it, but the rule says he must touch the bag, so I was wrong. Silly rule, but it is what it is and I learned something this year.

It's seems like such a simple game when you grow up with baseball since we were old enough to play little league or earlier. But it is actually very complicated when considering all the rules and odd plays that happen. Kind of reminds me of that movie "Blast From the Past" (super movie BTW), where a kid is born in a bomb shelter and doesn't come out until he's 30yrs old for the first time in his life. He was taught everything imaginable from speaking foreign languages (well, French anyway, except he thought "s#%t" was a French word for something entirely different), to learning complicated dancing, to heavy math. But no matter how many times his father tried to explain baseball, the kid (smart as a whip) just couldn't get it. Once he saw it played though, it made total sense...anyway, I digress

Lenn, you might be the only umpire I've ever heard admit they were wrong on a call...LOL

[Sem]

@LennG an infielder can't "intentionally" block the base with his foot, knee, or any body part, without first in possessing the ball, correct? I think I remembered seeing that recently, I believe in a Yankee game. If I remember correctly it was a play at 2nd base. It was either a runner trying to steal 2nd, or a batter trying to stretch a single into a double. At any rate, the runner was tagged out, but replay showed the 2nd baseman had his knee and/or leg in front of the bag a split second before he caught the ball and applied the tag. Announcers initially questioned whether he interfered with the runner's ability to freely access the bag, but after viewing the replay said it was such a "bang-bang" play that whatever was ruled on the field likely would've been upheld by the replay official. 

In the case of your game was the foot on the bag before, or after, the fielder had the ball?

[LennG]

Steve

To be perfectly honest, I am not up on the current MLB rule for what you are asking. In the past, if the player was 'in the act of fielding the ball' he could then block the base. Now, I'm not sure if he actually has to have possession of the ball. I will try and look that up.

At the High School level which I am much more familiar with, the rule, as I have stated, cannot block the base unless you are in the act of fielding the ball. It is a very hard call by the umpire. Say the outfielder is making a throw to the plate. The catcher cannot block the plate until the ball is basically there. years ago, the fielder could as long as a throw is being made, not anymore. Again, if he is in the act of fielding the ball, he can block, otherwise, it should be rules obstruction and the runner would be safe.

[LennG]

It's seems like such a simple game when you grow up with baseball since we were old enough to play little league or earlier. But it is actually very complicated when considering all the rules and odd plays that happen. Kind of reminds me of that movie "Blast From the Past" (super movie BTW), where a kid is born in a bomb shelter and doesn't come out until he's 30yrs old for the first time in his life. He was taught everything imaginable from speaking foreign languages (well, French anyway, except he thought "s#%t" was a French word for something entirely different), to learning complicated dancing, to heavy math. But no matter how many times his father tried to explain baseball, the kid (smart as a whip) just couldn't get it. Once he saw it played though, it made total sense...anyway, I digress

Lenn, you might be the only umpire I've ever heard admit they were wrong on a call...LOL

Ric

Not to sound superior, but I used to sort of teach a friendly class to anyone who wanted to learn the basic rules of the game. I had a sheet that listed about 30 things most people thought they knew about baseball, that were all misconceptions, like things you grew up assuming, but really wasn't correct. So many people who watch baseball think it is all so simple, until that one play, like t he one mentioned and many others, occurs, then they are left scratching their heads and booing the umpire, who, hopefully, knows what's going on. Football is no different, in that we all watch and think we know the game until we see things in every game that we say, NO WAY, yet the official gets them right 99% of the time and e comew here and get pissed at t hem for screwing our team.

[Sem]

Steve

To be perfectly honest, I am not up on the current MLB rule for what you are asking. In the past, if the player was 'in the act of fielding the ball' he could then block the base. Now, I'm not sure if he actually has to have possession of the ball. I will try and look that up.

At the High School level which I am much more familiar with, the rule, as I have stated, cannot block the base unless you are in the act of fielding the ball. It is a very hard call by the umpire. Say the outfielder is making a throw to the plate. The catcher cannot block the plate until the ball is basically there. years ago, the fielder could as long as a throw is being made, not anymore. Again, if he is in the act of fielding the ball, he can block, otherwise, it should be rules obstruction and the runner would be safe.

I know the current MLB rule, at least when it comes to blocking the plate, for Catchers' safety sake, states that the catcher cannot block the plate unless he has the ball. I just wasn't sure if that also applied to the other three bases. My gut tells me it does, but baseball is filled with so many rules and peculiarities that would be unwilling to bet on it.

[LennG]

I looked it up in the MLB rule book and from what I see there is nothing about blocking the other bases. That said I would expect the same rule to apply at those bases also.

[LennG]

I looked it up in the MLB rule book and from what I see there is nothing about blocking the other bases. That said I would expect the same rule to apply at those bases also.

 Just to clarify this

Rule 6.01(h ) Comment: If a fielder is about to receive a
thrown ball and if the ball is in flight directly toward and near
enough to the fielder so he must occupy his position to receive
the ball he may be considered "in the act of fielding a ball." It
is entirely up to the judgment of the umpire as to whether a
fielder is in the act of fielding a ball. After a fielder has made
an attempt to field a ball and missed, he can no longer be in the
"act of fielding" the ball. For example: An infielder dives at a
ground ball and the ball passes him and he continues to lie on
the ground and delays the progress of the runner, he very likely
has obstructed the runner.

[LennG]

So I have some 'new' rules questions, including one I never knew also.

Runners on 2nd and 3rd, 1 out, and the offensive team tries a squeeze play. The runner from 3rd is now in a rundown between 3rd and home. The runner from 2nd runs to 3rd and now occupies it. The runner in the rundown crashes into a defensive player and is called out for offensive interference. Does the runner, who is now on 3rd remain there?

[Jolly Blue Giant]

So I have some 'new' rules questions, including one I never knew also.

Runners on 2nd and 3rd, 1 out, and the offensive team tries a squeeze play. The runner from 3rd is now in a rundown between 3rd and home. The runner from 2nd runs to 3rd and now occupies it. The runner in the rundown crashes into a defensive player and is called out for offensive interference. Does the runner, who is now on 3rd remain there?

Sure! It's not even that uncommon. What I've seen a few times over the years, is the guy caught in the rundown makes it back to third base without getting tagged, and now both runners are standing on the same bag and the guy from second is automatically out. I guess the guy who was on second could head back to second, but he'd be picked off with ease once both guys are in the same place and the defense is smothering them

[LennG]

Sure! It's not even that uncommon. What I've seen a few times over the years, is the guy caught in the rundown makes it back to third base without getting tagged, and now both runners are standing on the same bag and the guy from second is automatically out. I guess the guy who was on second could head back to second, but he'd be picked off with ease once both guys are in the same place and the defense is smothering them

Ric

But, that is not being called out for interference.

Hint, the offense cannot gain if some one is called out for interference.

[LennG]

Here's another.

Batter hits a pop-up and it is right by the stands. The 1st baseman reaches over t he rail to make the catch but a fan also goes for the ball and prevents the 1at baseman from making the catch.

Can the umpire call the batter out for fan-interference because it would have been an easy catch but it was over the fence?

[LennG]

And a 3rd one.

Man on 1st base. The send base umpire is in the infield in the correct position. The batter hits a line drive that hits the umpire on the foot, bounds up in the air, and is caught by the 2nd baseman, who now throws to first to try and double the runner off.

What's your call?

[Jolly Blue Giant]

Here's another.

Batter hits a pop-up and it is right by the stands. The 1st baseman reaches over t he rail to make the catch but a fan also goes for the ball and prevents the 1at baseman from making the catch.

Can the umpire call the batter out for fan-interference because it would have been an easy catch but it was over the fence?

When the ball is over the fence, thus into the fan area, it's everyone for themselves. The fielder has no more right to the ball than the fan. Batter gets a "foul ball" call. If the fan reaches over the fence into the player field and interferes...a whole other story - automatic out 

[Jolly Blue Giant]

And a 3rd one.

Man on 1st base. The send base umpire is in the infield in the correct position. The batter hits a line drive that hits the umpire on the foot, bounds up in the air, and is caught by the 2nd baseman, who now throws to first to try and double the runner off.

What's your call?

Not sure, but I don't think it can be called a catch (hence, batter would be called an automatic out), so fielder throws to second base for an out and it's a double play ONLY if they turn it before the batter gets to first...again